From ‘God’ (ΘΕΟΣ) to ‘God’ (ΝΟΥΤΕ):
A New Discussion and Proposal
Regarding John 1:1C
and the Sahidic Coptic Version
of the New Testament
Abstract
Due to the antiquity of the Sahidic Coptic version of the New Testament among early versions of the New Testament, it is a significant resource for New Testament textual criticism, reception history, and the history of interpretation. This article explores the manner in which the Sahidic Coptic version translates the anarthrous nominative singular (AnNS) θεός, and its effect on a key passage regarding the understanding of Jesus’ divinity. It does so by answering two distinct but related questions: (1) Did the Sahidic Coptic translators uniformly translate the AnNS θεός? (2) How can the assessment of the Sahidic Coptic translation pattern inform the discussion of the history, transcription, and translation of John 1:1c?I. Introduction
The Sahidic Coptic version of the New Testament is among the most important of the early versions of the New Testament. Most scholars place the Sahidic Coptic translation no later than the fourth century and as early as the second.1 Given its early date, coupled with the fact that it is highly representative of the Alexandrian form of text,2 the Sahidic Coptic version of the New Testament provides a unique window into the transmission, reception, and interpretation of the New Testament text. Furthermore, given the Coptic text's ability to reliably signify information about the Greek text3 (e.g. word order4), extant Sahidic Coptic manuscripts comprise a rich deposit of data about what that early Greek text would have looked like and how it was understood at the time of translation. With that understanding in mind, this article explores a new area of discussion concerning the Sahidic Coptic version: its translation of the anarthrous nominative singular (AnNS) θεός.
No current academic publication examines whether Sahidic Coptic translators uniformly translated θεός from their New Testament Vorlage. In fact, New Testament scholars have almost uniformly ignored the manner in which Sahidic Coptic translators used the Coptic articles withto reproduce Greek constructions involving θεός. As a result, what little information there is on the Coptic use of the article contains inaccuracies. For example, one standard Coptic grammar states: ‘
always takes [the definite article]
when referring to the God of the Bible.’5 Likewise, one Coptic lexicon states that
always (‘toujours’) carries the equivalence of ‘ὁ Θεός’.6 These assessments, while helpful in general, are not axiomatic. For example, if we were to take a look at the 12 instances of the anarthrous
, two of them (Rom. 1:21 and Rev. 16:7) plainly refer to ‘the God of the Bible’. Only four of them (John 10:35, 1 Cor. 8:4 and 5, and 2 Thess. 2:4) actually follow Layton's maxim: that is, the anarthrous
refers to an entity other than ‘the God of the Bible’.7 The same type of variation exists when the converse of the rule is examined: there are two examples of
occurring with the definite article that do not refer to ‘the God of the Bible’ (Acts 7:43 and 2 Cor. 4:4).
Without canvassing all the issues or opportunities previous treatments raise, we will answer two distinct but connected questions: (1) Did the Sahidic Coptic translators uniformly translate the AnNS θεός? (2) What can that uniformity (or the lack thereof) tell us about one of the earliest understandings of John 1:1c? In order to answer these two questions, we will define our database parameters, evaluate the translation pattern in the Sahidic Coptic version, and assess the results, particularly with respect to John 1:1c.II. Main Database
The first step in building our database8 is to assess how often the nominative singular θεός occurs within the Greek New Testament. Through various analyses in individual manuscripts as well as compiled New Testament texts and modern critical texts, we were able to place that number at a little greater than 300.9 Of those roughly three hundred occurrences, fewer than 10 percent are anarthrous.10 Most importantly for this study, of those AnNS θεός, only four were transcribed with the Sahidic Coptic indefinite article: John 1:1, 1 Cor. 8:6, Eph. 4:6, and 2 Thess. 2:4. These are, in fact, four of only five times the indefinite article occurs within the New Testament. Acts 28:6, which is translated from an anarthrous accusative θεόν, is the only other instance of this same construction. Hence, every time the indefinite article occurs with
, it parallels an anarthrous form of θεός.
To be sure, one must keep in mind that the Copts would have translated from the particular manuscripts in front of them, rather than from critical texts as we do today. Therefore, it is difficult to say in some cases whether a given Coptic text differs from our Greek text because of a translational issue rather than a textual one, or vice versa.11 Consequently, in defining the set of texts to examine, we cast a wide net. We looked at all occurrences of the AnNS θεός in seven early New Testament manuscripts: P46 (2nd c.), ℵ (4th), A (5th), B (4th), C (5th), D/05 (5th), and D/06 (6th). Additionally, we examined the Robinson-Pierpont Majority text.12 In all, our searches produced 31 instances of the AnNS θεός (see Table 1).Table 1.
AnNS θεός in selected New Testament manuscripts
Because these texts are not uniform, it is necessary to determine which manuscripts (if any) the Sahidic Coptic New Testament follows. This requires some assumptions on our part. Our first assumption is that if there is no variant involving the article and θεός, then the Sahidic translators would have had an AnNS θεός in front of them. This holds true in 21 of the 31 cases.13 In the other ten cases, our job is not so simple. To proceed, our second assumption is that, due to the Alexandrian nature of the Sahidic Coptic text, if ℵ and B are united on a particular variant, then the translators would have had that reading in front of them. This holds true for John 1:18, John 8:54, and Phil. 2:13.14 Mark 12:32 is the exception to this rule. The Coptic text follows a θεός only present in articular form in D/05; it is anarthrous in the TR, E, W, and a few other manuscripts. Unfortunately, it is impossible to tell from which form the Coptic text derives its reading, since both forms of the variants can be represented by the Coptic. This also holds true in the cases of Matt. 22:32, Mark 12:27, Gal. 2:6, and Rev. 4:11. The final two references can be sorted out on their own merits. For 1 Tim. 3:16, neither the Sahidic Coptic witnesses nor our seven Greek manuscripts above even contain
/θεός; it most certainly is not translated from an AnNS θεός. On the other hand, only A even contains θεός in Rev. 21:3, making it certain that the Coptic text (which contains
) followed the AnNS θεός. Therefore, our final list of 25 Coptic texts that follow Greek texts with an AnNS θεός is as shown in Table 2.
Table 2.
Sahidic Coptic New Testament texts translated from an AnNS θεόςIII. Translation Pattern
At first glance, the database for the Coptic indefinite article withcan appear either insignificant or purposefully selective.15 As is mentioned above, even if one expands the search to include every other case form, there is only one other instance of the indefinite article with
: Acts 28:6. This single additional reference further supports the fact that the Sahidic Coptic translators rarely used the indefinite article
with
, regardless of case form. What is more, we also found no other examples of this construction in the following critical texts: the Letter of Peter to Philip, the First Revelation of James, the Gospel of Judas, the Gospel of Thomas, A Book of Allogenes, Egerton Papyrus 2: The Unknown Gospel, and Other Unidentified Gospel Fragments (i.e. P.Vindob.G 2325, P.Mert. 51, P.Oxy. 210, P.Oxy. 1224, P.Oxy. 840, and P.Berol. 11710).16 What explains this selectivity?
Further examination of the five indefinite occurrences of(see Table 3) reveals four possible scenarios regarding the Sahidic Coptic translations: (1) The indefinite article functioned as a stylistic marker. (2) The indefinite article indicated the presence or absence of the Greek definite article, without making an interpretative distinction. (3) Coptic syntax required the translators to employ the indefinite article. (4) The indefinite article allowed for an interpretative distinction between the definite, indefinite, and qualitative use of θεός: ‘God’ vs. ‘a god’ vs. ‘possessing the qualities of God [or a god]’.
Table 3.
The indefinite article within the Sahidic Coptic version of the New Testament
A. Stylistic IssuesOur small sample size is itself a clue to the Copts’ use of the indefinite article, or their neglect of it altogether. Of the 25 instances of the AnNS θεός, the vast majority are reflected in the Sahidic Coptic version with the definite article (21/25; 84%). Of these, the vast majority are also in reference to ‘the God of the Bible’ (20/25; 80%).17 It is no exaggeration to suggest, then, that the Coptic translators were disinclined to use anything other than the definite article when translating θεός.18 If the Coptic translators were so reluctant to use the indefinite article with, our question must not be ‘what uniformly required the translators to use the indefinite article?’ but instead ‘what individual circumstances required the use of a disfavoured construction?’
One such stylistic circumstance is narrative: specifically, the movement within a narrative from an unknown to a known entity. Layton notes instances in which the indefinite article is used to indicate an unknown entity in a story before it becomes the known entity, at which point the definite article can be utilized.19 Luke 9:34–5 represents one such example. In the transfiguration story, an unknown entity, ‘a cloud’ (), overshadows the group. Then, the group enters ‘the cloud’ (
) and hears a voice from ‘the cloud’ (
). As seen, the latter two references became the known entity, now definite, since the unknown entity had already been introduced.
Such an explanation is tempting in the case of our two narrative texts, John 1:1 and Acts 28:6. Unfortunately, neither matches the conditions well. For example,would need to be an ‘unknown’ entity in John 1:1; it is not. It would need to occur with the indefinite article first; it does not. Then, it would need to be followed by the definite article; it is not. And even if all those characteristics were ignored, the more likely candidate for ‘unknown to known entity’ in this verse would be ‘the Word’ (
). The problem, though, is that within these four verses ‘the Word’ occurs exclusively with the definite article. The same can be said for Acts 28:6. There is no point later on in the narrative that refers to the definite
. These texts, then, are simply not attempting to introduce an unknown god that subsequently becomes known.
The narrative stylistic solution, therefore, is not probable. It neither accounts for the other non-narrative texts (1 Cor. 8:6, Eph. 4:6, and 2 Thess. 2:4) nor the circumstances of the two narrative texts (John 1:1 and Acts 28:6). Though such a solution is tempting, the evidence does not support it.
B. Indicating the Presence or Absence of the Greek ArticleAs is stated above, of these 25 Greek New Testament passages, 21 of them are translated without an indefinite. This eliminates the possibility that the Coptic translators were systematically using the indefinite article to reflect the anarthrous θεός. That is not to say there is no value in using Coptic articles to make assumptions about the Greek text the translators would have been using. One must of course be cautious; just because the Coptic version contains a definite article does not mean its Vorlage did as well. On the other hand, it is highly probable that the Greek Vorlage lacked the article if the Coptic text attests the indefinite article. Both of these observations are especially important due to the increasing amount of Coptic MS discoveries and their use in critical Greek texts. For example, there are roughly 182 Coptic MSS of the Gospel of John in the Sahidic dialect. That number includes five complete MSS of John's Gospel (i.e. sa 505, 506, 508, 561, 600), 38 lectionaries, and three other liturgical MSS.20 This is certainly evidence that ought to be considered in assessing studies such as our own. But the preponderance of manuscript evidence does nothing to support the suggestion that the Coptic translators were using the indefinite article to indicate the presence or absence of the Greek article with θεός systematically. They simply were not.
C. Syntactical IssuesIf the few occurrences of the indefinite article withcannot be explained by means of style, or by accounting for the presence or absence of the Greek article, let us examine individual syntactical issues that might require the use of the indefinite article.
1. John 1:1
καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγοςand the word was [a] godThis verse follows Layton's sixth pattern for nominal sentences (‘Entity TermEntity Term’).21 As he points out, ‘identification of predicate and subject is not signalled at the level for the individual sentence; rather, it is signalled within a larger unit of text’. In this case, the larger unit (the remainder of John 1:1–4) makes clear that
is the subject. Another consideration is the converse of Lambdin's classification for nominal sentences. He notes: ‘If the subject and predicate are both definite, the normal position of
is between them … Identification of subject and predicate in this case can be made only on a contextual basis.’22 In our case, the problem is not determining the subject between two definite entities, but evaluating the indefinite
along with the definite subject
. Either way, Lambdin's observation makes clear that the indefinite article is not required in the service of grammatical clarity in John 1:1c.
2. Acts 28:6
ἔλεγον αὐτὸν εἶναι θεόνthey said he was a godThe grammar of Acts 28:6 is very similar to that of John 1:1. The few differences, however, make the case against the syntactical necessity of the indefinite article even more stark. That is to say, there is no other entity necessitating differentiation of the subject from the predicate. Indeed, there is no predicate. Consequently, it is even clearer that the indefinite article is not required by the semantics.3. First Corinthians 8:6 and Ephesians 4:6
εἷς θεὸς ὁ πατὴρ εἷς θεὸς καὶ πατὴρ one God, the father One God [and] father
The similar Greek constructions in 1 Cor. 8:6 and Eph. 4:6 yield similar Coptic constructions. In at least these two verses, the presence of the indefinite article can indeed be explained entirely on syntactical grounds. The indefinite article is simply functioning numerically (for ‘one’). The presence ofmerely strengthens the case for such an interpretation.23
4. Second Thessalonians 2:4
ἀποδεικνύντα ἑαυτὸν ὅτι ἔστιν θεόςdisplaying himself as [a] god2 Thess. 2:4 presents the richest single deposit for our comparisons in one of the most enigmatic sections of the New Testament (2:3–12).24 Within a span of 23 words, all threeconstructions occur: definite, indefinite, and anarthrous. The definite and anarthrous constructions are easily understood: the definite construction, ‘the temple of God’ (
), refers to ‘the God of the Bible’ while the anarthrous construction, ‘so-called god’ (
), reflects its idolatrous context. The indefinite construction proves a bit more difficult since this construction is a nominal sentence, with a single entity followed by
. This follows Layton's fourth pattern for nominal sentences—unfortunately, such recognition does not make interpretation any easier.25
The Coptic text can be understood a few different ways: (1) referring to ‘the God of the Bible’ (‘displaying himself as God’ or ‘as if he were God’); (2) referring to a god other than ‘the God of the Bible’ (‘displaying himself as a god’); or (3) referring to the qualities of God (‘displaying himself as if he has the qualities of God’). Although the majority of critical commentaries translate θεός as ‘God’, they often still note something to the fact that Paul may have intended the anarthrous θεός to simply mean ‘a god’ or ‘divine’.26 We concur. Indeed, in the following section, we will outline our current understanding of John 1:1, Acts 28:6, and 2 Thess. 2:4. We believe that the best explanation for the indefinite article in the three remaining references will be one that unifies and explains them accordingly.27
D. Indicating an Interpretative DistinctionThere is an accepted view that ‘the [Greek] article appears when the specific Jewish or Christian God or Lord is meant (not “a being of divine name” or “a Lord”)’.28 However, while this assertion is generally true, it is not always true. For example, θεός in Rom. 8:33 is referring to ‘the God of the Bible’, though it lacks the article. In Phil. 3:19, θεός has the article, yet it does not refer to the Jewish or Christian God.29 Furthermore, several scholars have shown that there is no firm, fine, or consistent distinction between the articular and the anarthrous θεός.30
The same accepted view and critique holds true within the Coptic language. For example, Rev. 16:7 has no Coptic article with, while clearly speaking of ‘the God of the Bible’:
κύριε ὁ θεὸς ὁ παντοκράτωρLord God, the AlmightyOn the other hand, 2 Cor. 4:4 is clearly referring to a god other than ‘the God of the Bible’, yet the definite article is attested:ὁ θεὸς τοῦ αἰῶνος τούτουthe god of this ageThis assessment holds true regardless of how one takes the Greek genitive construction following it (epexegetical, objective, possessive, etc.). It is clear, then, that 2 Cor. 4:4 does not refer to ‘God’ in any canonical sense. Furthermore, ‘the God of the Bible’ is referred to as ‘the King of the ages’ (e.g. 1 Tim. 1:17; Τῷ δὲ βασιλεῖ τῶν αἰώνων), never this present age.31
With that in mind, our purpose is to examine the Sahidic Coptic evidence to see whether it suggests that the translators were attempting to make an interpretative distinction between the definite, indefinite, and qualitative use of the article. Layton describes the qualitative category this way: ‘A descriptive predicate is one that speaks of an entity by its quality but without explicitly naming (denoting) the particular entity to which it refers.’32 Rather than speaking of ‘the God of the Bible’ (definite) or some pagan god (indefinite), our three remaining references would be speaking of the qualities of whatever God or gods the speaker/author had in mind.
In the case of Acts 28:6, it is clear that ‘the God of the Bible’ is not the entity the local Maltese population means by θεόν. This reference alone adds credence to this explanation for the indefinite article. On the other hand, 2 Thess. 2:4 does not possess such contextual clarity. It is impossible to say for certain whether the Copts would have understood the final θεός of 2 Thess. 2:4 to refer to ‘the God of the Bible’ or some sort of false god; indeed, even modern commentaries differ on that interpretation. For example, Pervo states that the islanders take a more-than-180-degree turn and conclude that Paul is not simply a ‘protégé of a god, but a very god’.33 In addition, although not a critical commentary, Dunn suggests terms like ‘divine’ and ‘god-likeness’ here.34
The lack of any other clarification of the article supports the idea that its meaning must be relatively self-evident, and it must be so in all three references. However, where the explanation of using the indefinite article as a contextual marker for indefiniteness falls short, the understanding of using the indefinite article to indicate a qualitative distinction stands out. In both Acts 28:6 and 2 Thess. 2:4, it is possible to translate the indefiniteas well as the AnNS θεός descriptively (i.e. ‘he possessed the qualities of a god [or of God]’).
IV. Applying the Results to John 1.1c
Over 50 years ago, Bruce Metzger explicitly rejected the rendering ‘a god’ in John 1:1c as reflected in the Jehovah's Witnesses’ own translation of the NT, The New World Translation.35 His primary argument in both noted publications congregated around Greek grammar (i.e. Colwell's Rule); it remains a popular argument today.36 But scholars have shown the need for clarification, adequately demonstrating why that argument leaves much to be desired.37 Our purpose, then, is to apply the results of our Coptic study to this debate to see how this early version sheds light on the history of interpretation and potentially helps one translate and interpret these verses.
Although we did not initially include John 1:1c due to its debated nature, it is now time to examine it in the light of our discussion above. If one accepts our arguments, then the best way to understand the Copts’ use of the indefinite article is that they were making an interpretative, qualitative distinction. This distinction was to describe the qualities of whatever god/entity was being referenced by the speaker, author, or both. Thus, the Maltese population in Acts 28:6 were simply saying that Paul had the qualities of ‘a god’ as they perceived the gods. In other words: ‘It is not that Luke intended their verdict to be taken literally: his earlier campaign against false ideas of God and of God's relation to humankind was too clear and sustained for such a conclusion to be possible … and those who speak the words are, after all, “barbarians”.’38 This fits well with how the Copts were probably understanding the text: descriptively. It is not that the ‘barbarians’ were calling Paul a ‘false god’, or a ‘lesser divine god’, but that they were describing him as one characterized as having the qualities of ‘a god’ as they understood the gods.
Likewise, the best understanding of 2 Thess. 2:4 is that the author is referring to the qualities of ‘the God of the Bible’, even though the ‘man of lawlessness’ is not meant to be understood as ‘the God of the Bible’. As Malherbe said: ‘It is therefore preferable to understand the characterization as of someone who is so self-aggrandizing that he vaunts himself against all gods whatsoever, perceived or real.’39 Again, this complements how the Copts probably understood the text: descriptively. It is not that the ‘man of lawlessness’ will exult himself as a ‘false god’, or a ‘lesser divine god’, but that he was one claiming the qualities of God (in this case, ‘the God of the Bible’).
The same category applies to John 1:1c. This qualitative/descriptive understanding makes the best sense within John's prologue. The Copts understood John to be saying that ‘the Word’ has the same qualities as ‘the God of the Bible’. On the other hand, if one disagrees with our arguments above, the only other viable interpretations given the other usages would suggest that the Copts understood ‘the Word’ to be either a ‘god of the pagans’ (cf. Acts 28:6) or some ‘usurper god’ (cf. 2 Thess. 2:4). Yet, this leaves one with much wider problems.
First, there are other passages in the Coptic text which explicitly call Jesus θεός, with the definite article, even in the same chapter and book (e.g. John 1:18; 20:28; cf. Titus 2:13; 1 John 5:20). It is improbable, then, that the Coptic translators would have taken the author of the Gospel of John to mean for ‘the Word’ to be a ‘pagan god’ or ‘usurper god’ in John 1:1, and then ‘the God of the Bible’ 17 verses later. Yet even if one rejects all of these texts, the manuscript evidence shows that at least at some point early in history the Copts felt comfortable ascribingto Jesus, as seen in P.11710:
.40 Second, there were other Coptic words available to them to denote the idea of ‘the Word’ being merely divine, as some sort of ‘godly’ or even ‘god-like’ entity (e.g.
in 2 Pet. 1:3, 4 respectively).41 Third, the overall context of the pericope, chapter, book, and New Testament decreases the probability of any interpretation other than the qualitative one. To this point, it is worth noting Sadananda in full:
It is not in the title or in the abstract categories [love, light, truth], but in the text context that theological thinking enfolds and is expressed. The text context is not merely a linguistic one, it reflects the socio-cultural context. By way of exploring human experience, and understanding the concrete community context which created the ‘text contexts’, we encounter not only in the explicit theological language, but also in silent implicit symbols, ‘the God’ of the community.42Fourth, other examples of common nouns with indefinite articles, such as ‘prophet’ or ‘spirit’, clash with either interpretation (i.e. a ‘pagan prophet/spirit’ or a ‘usurper prophet/spirit’). Compare, for example, John 4:19 and John 6:14:John 4:19: λέγει αὐτῷ ἡ γυνή· κύριε, θεωρῶ ὅτι προφήτης εἶ σύ..
The woman said to him: ‘Sir, I see that you are [one who has the qualities of] a prophet.’John 6:14: Οἱ οὖν ἄνθρωποι ἰδόντες ὃ ἐποίησεν σημεῖον ἔλεγον ὅτι οὗτός ἐστιν ἀληθῶς ὁ προφήτης ὁ ἐρχόμενος εἰς τὸν κόσμον..
When the people saw the sign that he had done, they began to say: ‘This is indeed the prophet who is to come into the world.’These four reasons alone decrease (or possibly eliminate) the likelihood that the Copts understood (or meant to use the indefinite article to suggest) ‘the Word’ to be either a ‘god of the pagans’ or some ‘usurper god’.V. Conclusion
Coming full circle, we conclude by offering our proposal in regards to the initial two questions we posed:
A. Did the Sahidic Coptic Translators Uniformly Translate the AnNS θεός?The answer to this question depends at least in part on what we mean by ‘uniformly’. If we mean ‘categorically, without exception’, then, no, the nominative singular θεός is not translated uniformly. As is laboured over above, there are instances where the Copts translated passages with the AnNS θεός without the article or with an indefinite article. However, ‘categorically, without exception’ is a standard that no translation, ancient or modern, is held to. Instead, ‘uniformly’ is best taken as ‘regularly’. In which case, yes, the Copts regularly translated the nominative singular θεός with the definite article.
To the question of what to do with those instances in which the Coptic translators did not use the definite article, we can start by ruling out three of the four solutions we examined: (1) There was no overriding stylistic reason that explained every occurrence. (2) It was not used merely to indicate the presence or absence of the Greek article. (3) There was no syntactical requirement that accounted for all the examples. We propose then, that the indefinite article, absent any other considerations, was used withwithin Sahidic Coptic grammar to indicate an interpretative distinction, categorically labelled in Coptic grammars as ‘descriptive’ (or ‘qualitative’ in Greek grammars).
B. What Can that Uniformity (or the Lack thereof) Tell Us about One of the Earliest Understandings of John 1:1c?We propose that the best way to take the indefinite article in John 1:1c is as an attempt by the Copts to interpret the anarthrous θεός descriptively/qualitatively. As a result, they interpreted and translated John 1.1c to mean that ‘the Word’ possesses the same qualities as ‘the God of the Bible’. This interpretation best explains and complements the other passages in the Coptic text which explicitly call Jesus θεός, the other Coptic words available to them to denote something different, the specific and broader context within the book and New Testament, the other indefinite common noun references, and the history of transmission regarding this title being ascribed to Jesus.43 This solution also accounts for the similarities of syntax between the three passages, and takes into account the Copts’ apparent confidence that the indefinite article would be understood properly without any further clarification.
The other New Testament references we examined do not support the concept of some in-between category of ‘sort of god’ or a ‘lesser divine god’. To place John 1:1c in this category would require substantial arguments that have gone undetected in this work. In fact, the argument(s) would have to add enough plausibility that the Copts understood John to open his Gospel with an interpretation that appears different from anything attested elsewhere.
Footnotes
- ↵1 For a survey of scholarly opinion, see Bruce M. Metzger, The Early Versions of the New Testament: Their Origin, Transmission, and Limitations (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1977), p. 127; Arthur Vööbus, Early Versions of the New Testament: Manuscript Studies (Stockholm: Papers of the Estonian Theological Society in Exile, 1954), pp. 219–20; and Helmut Koester, Introduction to the New Testament, 2nd edn., vol. 2: History and Literature of Early Christianity (New York: Walter de Gruyter, 1995), p. 35. Frederik Wisse (‘The Coptic Versions of the New Testament’, in The Text of the New Testament in Contemporary Research: Essays on the Status Quaestionis [Grand Rapids. MI: Eerdmans, 1995], pp. 134–6) updates the discussion and sees a three-stage development for the Sahidic translation, but still places the earliest stage of that development in the third century.
- ↵2 So Vööbus, Early Versions, p. 227; Koester, History and Literature, p. 35; and Wisse, ‘Coptic Versions’, p. 127.
- ↵3 Vööbus, Early Versions, p. 225. With the obvious linguistic caveats in mind, see J. Martin Plumley, ‘Limitations of Coptic (Sahidic) in Representing Greek’, in Metzger, The Early Versions of the New Testament, pp. 141–52. For caution in scholarly usage of Coptic manuscripts for textual criticism, see Christian Askeland, ‘Has the Coptic Tradition Been Properly Used in New Testament Textual Criticism?’ (paper presented at the annual meeting of the SBL, Boston, MA, 22 Nov. 2008) and Peter J. Williams, ‘On the Representation of Sahidic within the Apparatus of the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece’, Journal of Coptic Studies 8 (2006), pp. 123–5.
- ↵4 Wisse, ‘Coptic Versions’, p. 132.
- ↵5 Bentley Layton, A Coptic Grammar: Sahidic Dialect (Wiesbaden: Harrassowitz, 2000), p. 39.
- ↵6 The author understands ‘ὁ Θεός’ in the sense of the God of the Jews and Christians (‘dans le sens du Judaïsme et du Christianisme’). Werner Vycichl, Dictionnaire étymologique de la langue copte (Leuven: Peeters, 1984) p. 145.
- ↵7 In the other six instances, Coptic utilizes a multi-word phrase containing
to translate a single Greek term:
for θεοστυγεῖς in Rom. 1:30 (‘God-haters’), and
for εὐσέβειαν in 1 Tim. 6:5, 2 Pet. 1:3, 1:6–7, and 3:11 (‘godliness’).
- ↵8 For the Greek New Testament, Accordance 8.4.6 produced the statistics and was cross-checked with Bibleworks 8. For the Sahidic Coptic version, we examined The Coptic Version of the New Testament in the Southern Dialect, Otherwise Called Sahidic and Thebaic, with Critical Apparatus, Literal English Translation, Register of Fragments and Estimate of the Version, ed. George W. Horner (7 vols.; Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1911–24); Hans Quecke, Das Johannesevangelium saïdisch: Text der Handschrift PPalau Rib. Inv.–Nr. 183 mit den Varianten der Handschriften 813 und 814 der Chester Beatty Library und der Handschrift M569 (Barcelona: Papyrologica Castroctaviana, 1984); The Coptic Version of the Acts of the Apostles and the Pauline Epistles in the Sahidic Dialect, ed. Herbert Thompson (Cambridge, 1932); David Kneip, ‘The Text of Romans in Sahidic Coptic’ (M.Div. thesis, Abilene Christian University, 2004); and the Sahidica 2010 text compiled by J. Warren Wells, available at <http://sahidica.warpco.com/>.
- ↵9 Within the 27th edition of the Nestle-Aland text (NA27), for example, the nominative singular θεός occurs 309 times in 287 New Testament verses. The Westcott-Hort New Testament has 296 occurrences in 279 verses. The Textus Receptus (TR) has 316 occurrences in 291 verses.
- ↵11 Karlheinz Schüssler examines the vagaries of such a study (i.e. moving between modern eclectic texts and ancient MSS) for the Gospel of John in particular (‘Some Pecularities of the Coptic (Sahidic) Translations of the Gospel of John’, Journal of Coptic Studies 10 [2008], pp. 41–62).
- ↵12 The New Testament in the Original Greek: Byzantine Textform, compiled and arranged by Maurice A. Robinson and William G. Pierpont (Southborough, MA: Hilton Book Publishing, 2005).
- ↵13 Luke 20:38; John 1:1; Acts 15:8; Rom. 8:33, 9:5; 1 Cor. 3:7, 8:4 and 6; 2 Cor. 1:3 and 21, 5:5 and 19, 6:16; Gal. 6:7; Eph. 4:6; 1 Thess. 2:5; 2 Thess. 2:4; 1 Tim. 2:5; Heb. 3:4, 11:16; Rev. 21:7. Notice that all four of our special cases (those translated into Coptic without the definite article) appear on this list. To satisfy the reader's curiosity, let it be known that Acts 28:6 (the only other occurrence of
without the definite article) also lacks any variants having to do with θεός.
- ↵14 John 1:18 and 8:54 can both be validated independently of this assumption, lending it credence. In the case of John 1:18, A and the Majority text have ὗιος instead of θεός. Additionally, P75 and a corrector of ℵ add the article in front of μονογενὴς. But the original hand of ℵ and our other manuscripts overwhelmingly support the AnNS θεός. For John 8:54, while it does have a variant (among others, P66 and L are articular), our manuscripts are entirely united on the AnNS θεός.
- ↵15 Indeed, we understand what a small database this is. Nevertheless, one must not dismiss the discussion for two reasons: (1) As is demonstrated above, it is a substantive database nonetheless. (2) Taken as a whole, these references do present us with a coherent answer. Therefore, we contend that this small yet justifiable database yields legitimate results/conclusions.
- ↵16 Cf. Andrew E. Bernhard, Other Early Christian Gospels: A Critical Edition of the Surviving Greek Manuscripts (New York: T & T Clark, 2007); April D. DeConick, The Original Gospel of Thomas in Translation: With a Commentary and New English Translation of the Complete Gospel (New York: T & T Clark, 2006); Uwe-Karsten Plisch, The Gospel of Thomas: Original Text with Commentary (Stuttgart: Deutsche Bibelgesellschaft, 2008).
- ↵17 John 1:1, John 1:18, and Rom. 9:5 refer to Jesus. 1 Cor. 8:4 and 2 Thess. 2:4 are ambiguous.
- ↵18 To belabour this point just a bit more, of these particular 25 references, there are only two occurrences in which the referent of θεός is clearly ‘the God of the Bible’, yet is translated without the definite article: 1 Cor. 8:6 and Eph. 4:6. In both cases, the indefinite article paired with
functions numerically.
- ↵19 Bentley Layton, Coptic in 20 Lessons (Leuven: Peeters, 2007), p. 15.
- ↵20 Schüssler, ‘Some Pecularities’, p. 42. His recent MS calculation helps explain the now ‘1057 Coptic citations of John's gospel in the 27th edition of the Nestle-Aland Novum Testamentum Graece’ (Askeland, ‘Coptic Tradition’, p. 1).
- ↵21 Layton, A Coptic Grammar, §268.
- ↵22 Thomas Lambdin, Introduction to Sahidic Coptic (Macon, GA: Mercer University Press, 1983), p. 15.
- ↵23 Layton, A Coptic Grammar, §158b.
- ↵24 James D. G. Dunn, Beginning from Jerusalem (vol. 2 of Christianity in the Making [Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 2009]), p. 717.
- ↵25 Layton, A Coptic Grammar, §267.
- ↵26 See, among others, Gordon D. Fee, The First and Second Letters to the Thessalonians (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 2009), p. 283. In that same vein, though, it is necessary throughout this discussion to keep in mind the different levels of meaning, interpretation, and understanding happening in translation. The discussion that follows regarding the best understanding of 2 Thess. 2:4 and what its author would have meant is a separate one from how the Copts would have understood the text, which even still is a separate discussion from how the text is understood today. Nevertheless, we do not think ‘a god’ or ‘divine’ is the most probable translation.
In our opinion, the (1) scriptural context (e.g. referring specifically to ‘the man of lawlessness / son of destruction’), (2) grammatical constructions (e.g. the use of ναός with combined definite articles; τὸν ναὸν τοῦ θεοῦ), (3) OT allusion(s) (e.g. Isa. 14:13–14; Ezek. 28:2; Dan. 11:36–7), (4) semantic range (e.g. the main verb of this phrase [ἀποδείκνυμι] means ‘to show forth the quality of an entity’ [BDAG 108]), and (5) authorial intent (e.g. translating it qualitatively ‘is preferable as representing not what a pagan or apostate might say [“I am a god or am divine”] but rather the claim of a Christian writer [a usurper declares: “I am God”]’), (Earl J. Richard, First and Second Thessalonians, ed. Daniel J. Harrington [Collegeville, MN: Liturgical Press, 1995], p. 329) significantly increase the probability of understanding/translating θεός qualitatively. - ↵27 It is already the case that these three references utilize the same syntax for nominal constructions (all three are simple nominal sentences).
- ↵28 Friedrich Blass, Albert Debrunner, and Robert Walter Funk, A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, trans. and ed. Robert W. Funk (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 1961), p. 133.
- ↵29 Cf. Acts 7:43 and 2 Cor. 4:4 (the latter is discussed below).
- ↵30 See, among others, Murray J. Harris, Jesus as God: The New Testament Use of Theos in Reference to Jesus (Grand Rapids, MI: Baker, 1992), p. 29; Daniel Rathnakara Sadananda, The Johannine Exegesis of God: An Exploration into the Johannine Understanding of God (New York: Walter de Gruyter, 2004), p. 177.
- ↵31 The distinction between ‘ruler/king of this age’ and ‘ruler/king of the ages’ was also consistently maintained after the New Testament, e.g. in the Apostolic Fathers (cf. among others Ign. Magn. 1.3 and 1 Clem. 61.2).
- ↵32 Layton, A Coptic Grammar, p. 227.
- ↵33 Richard I. Pervo, Acts: A Commentary, ed. Harold W. Attridge (Minneapolis, MN; Fortress, 2009), p. 674. His assessment is contra the majority of other critical commentaries. See also F. F. Bruce, The Book of the Acts (Grand Rapids, MI; Eerdmans, 1988), p. 499; Darrell L. Bock, Acts (Grand Rapids, MI; Baker, 2007), p. 744.
- ↵34 Dunn, Beginning from Jerusalem, pp. 999, 1001, n. 195.
- ↵35 Bruce M. Metzger, ‘On the Translation of John i.1’, ExpTim 63 (1951–2), pp. 125–6; id., ‘Jehovah’s Witnesses and Jesus Christ’, ThTo 10 (1953), pp. 65–85.
- ↵36 See e.g. Andreas J. Köstenberger and Scott R. Swain, Father, Son and Spirit: The Trinity and John’s Gospel (Downers Grove, IL: InterVarsity, 2008), p. 49; Douglas W. Kennard, Messiah Jesus: Christology in his Day and ours (New York: Peter Lang, 2008), p. 473; J. Ramsey Michaels, The Gospel of John (Grand Rapids, MI: Eerdmans, 2010) p. 48. n. 10.
- ↵37 Matthew P. Morgan, ‘The Legacy of a Letter: Sabellianism or Scribal Blunder in John 1:1c?’, in Daniel B. Wallace (ed.), Revisiting the Corruption of the NT: Manuscript, Patristic and Apocryphal Evidence (Grand Rapids, MI: Kregel, forthcoming). Cf. Daniel B. Wallace, Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan, 1996), pp. 257–62; id., ‘The Implications of an Indefinite Θεός in John 1.1c’ (paper presented at the annual meeting of the ETS, Danvers, MA, 18 Nov. 1999).
- ↵38 James D. G. Dunn, The Acts of the Apostles (Peterborough: Epworth, 1996), p. 347. Furthermore, Luke did not attempt to portray Paul as a θεῖος ἀνήρ (C. K. Barrett, A Critical and Exegetical Commentary on the Acts of the Apostles, vol. 2 [New York: T & T Clark, 1998], p. 1224). Cf., among others, Bruce, The Book of the Acts, p. 499; Bock, Acts, p. 744; Acts Thom. 106.
- ↵39 Abraham J. Malherbe, The Letters to the Thessalonians: A New Translation with Introduction and Commentary (New York: Doubleday, 2000), p. 420.
- ↵40 Bernhard, Other Early Christian Gospels, p. 127.
- ↵41 Walter E. Crum, A Coptic Dictionary (Oxford: Clarendon Press, 1939), p. 231. See also Horner, Coptic Version of the New Testament in the Southern Dialect, pp. 67, n. 3, 68–9, n. 4.
- ↵42 Sadananda, The Johannine Exegesis of God, p. 11.
- ↵43 See n. 40.
* Brian J. Wright & Tim Ricchuiti,
“From ‘God’ (ΘΕΟΣ) to ‘God’ (ΝΟΥΤΕ):
A New Discussion and Proposal Regarding John 1:1C
and the Sahidic Coptic Version of the New Testament”,
Journal of Theological Studies Vol./Τόμ. 62, Issue/Τεύχος 2,
pp./σσ. 494-512.
[English/Αγγλικά, PDF, HTML]
* See also: / Βλέπε επίσης:
- coptictextcrit.blogspot.com
- brustingwulfe.blogspot.com
* Also: / Επίσης:
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Zeitschrift für die Neutestamentliche Wissenschaft und die Kunde der älteren Kirche. Volume 103, Issue 1, Pages 142–145, ISSN (Online) 1613-009X, ISSN (Print) 0044-2615, DOI: 10.1515/znw-2012-0008, February 2012. |
+to+%E2%80%98God%E2%80%99+(%CE%9D%CE%9F%CE%A5%CE%A4%CE%95)+A+New+Discussion+and+Proposal+Regarding+John+1+1C+and+the+Sahidic+Coptic+Version+of+the+New+Testament+_+intro.png)


The problem with the authors' conclusion is that it relies on a particular view of what "qualitative" means. Like Daniel Wallace, they take "qualitative" to mean, essentially, grammaticaly definite, by saying that at John 1:1c it means that the Word is God in every respect that "the God of the Bible" is God. In other words, "the Word was God."
ReplyDeleteThis leads to the false assumption that the 2nd/3rd century Copts "must" have understood John 1:1 only in the same way that Trinitarians since the 4th century have understood it.
It also enshrines the false assumption that in Scripture, "god/God" (elohim, theos) can refer only to the God of the Bible or to pagan deities:
"On the other hand, if one disagrees with our arguments above, the only other viable interpretations given the other usages would suggest that the Copts understood ‘the Word’ to be either a ‘god of the pagans’ (cf. Acts 28:6) or some ‘usurper god’ (cf. 2 Thess. 2:4)."
But it is not true that "theos" at John 1:1c must apply either to the true God or to some false God;
that is modern Western usage, not Semitic, Biblical usage.
Thus, it cannot be legitimately denied that John used the anarthrous "theos" at John 1:1 to say that the Word was a god, as understood in the Semitic world of which John himself was a part, and that the Coptic translators, who ware also familiar with the "Old Testament," understood the text in the same way.
(Intentionally?) disregarded is the fact that there is a third, legitimate usage for that term (theos) in Scripture: divine beings like angels and even men to whom divine authority has been delegated.
Therefore, the Bible gives credence to a natural translation of the Coptic indefinite phrase OYNOUTE as "a god" or "a divine being," not just qualitative "God" as "qualitative" is defined by Trinitarians.
The simplest and clearest understanding of Coptic John 1:1: "the Word was a god (or, divine)
is obfuscated by the typical verbosity of this essay, no doubt because it does not fit the theology of the authors.
See also:
http://coptictextcrit.blogspot.com/2011/10/is-coptic-john-11c-primarily.html
@Memra
DeleteThe qualitative interpretation does not inherently equate to grammatical definiteness. Rather, it emphasizes the nature or essence of the Word, without necessarily making a one-to-one identification with God the Father. In John 1:1c, understanding "theos" qualitatively suggests that the Word shares in the divine nature or essence, but it does not imply that the Word is identical to God the Father. The focus is on the nature of the Word as divine, not on the Word being another separate deity or a lesser god. This interpretation aligns with the broader context of John’s Gospel, which consistently presents the Word as possessing divine qualities and participating in the divine work of creation and revelation, yet distinct in personhood from God the Father.
While it is true that in certain contexts "theos" or its Hebrew equivalent "elohim" can refer to beings other than God, the context of John 1:1 is crucial. John’s prologue is deeply theological and aims to establish the preeminence and divinity of the Word. The phrase "the Word was with God" (John 1:1b) and "the Word was God" (John 1:1c) are meant to convey a profound relationship between the Word and God, where the Word shares in the divine essence, rather than being a lesser or subordinate being. The use of "theos" without the article in John 1:1c does not necessitate a lower status but rather serves to highlight the nature of the Word as truly divine. This is consistent with other passages in John that emphasize the unique relationship between the Father and the Son, where the Son is fully divine yet distinct from the Father.
The Coptic translators, working in the context of early Christian theology, were likely influenced by the prevailing theological debates and understandings of their time. The Coptic translation does use the indefinite article, which can suggest an indefinite sense ("a god"). However, the theological context in which this translation was made suggests that they were aiming to convey the Word’s divinity rather than demote the Word to the status of a lesser god. The use of "ounoute" in Coptic can indeed be understood qualitatively, reflecting the Word's divine nature. This reading does not contradict the Coptic translators' familiarity with the Old Testament but rather reflects their understanding of the Word as fully participating in the divine nature.
@Memra
DeleteWhile the Bible does use "theos" to refer to beings other than God in specific contexts (e.g., Psalm 82:6, where earthly human judges are called "gods"), the context of John 1:1 is different. The prologue of John is making a theological statement about the identity of the Word in relation to God. The context of John’s Gospel, with its high Christology, suggests that the intent is not to depict the Word as a lesser divine being, but rather as fully divine, sharing in the essence of God. The qualitative understanding—"the Word was divine"—is more consistent with the overall message of the Gospel and avoids the implications of polytheism that might arise from reading the text as "the Word was a god."
The charge of bias could be applied in various directions. While it is true that interpreters often bring their theological perspectives to the text, the qualitative interpretation of John 1:1c is rooted in careful linguistic and contextual analysis rather than mere theological preference. It seeks to understand the unique nature of the relationship between the Word and God as presented by John. The simplicity of the phrase "the Word was a god" might seem appealing, but it does not fully account for the theological depth of John’s prologue or the broader Christological themes in the Gospel.
The argument that John 1:1c should be understood as "the Word was a god" based on the Sahidic Coptic translation and a Semitic understanding of "theos" is not compelling when considering the broader theological and textual context of the Gospel of John. The qualitative interpretation, which sees "the Word was divine," aligns more closely with the high Christology of John’s Gospel and the intent to portray the Word as fully participating in the divine nature, distinct from but in unity with God the Father. The Sahidic Coptic translation, while valuable, should be read in light of the theological context in which it was produced, rather than as a simple affirmation of a lower divine status for the Word.
FYI: https://www.academia.edu/176411873
DeleteI think the central difficulty in your argument is that you repeatedly collapse distinctions that the Coptic grammars themselves insist upon keeping separate. In particular, you conflate morphological indefiniteness with denotative class membership, qualitative predication with definiteness, an interlinear morpheme gloss with a sentence-level translation, and the mere lexical possibility that “god” can denote a subordinate supernatural being with evidence that it does so in John 1:1c. Once those distinctions are restored, the Sahidic evidence becomes considerably less favorable to the conclusion you wish to draw. I do not need to maintain that the Coptic article itself encodes Nicene ὁμοούσιος, nor do I need to pretend that “a god” is grammatically impossible. The much more defensible claim is that Sahidic ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is morphologically indefinite but semantically capable of either denotative or descriptive predication, and that the specifically Jehovah’s Witness conclusion—“one subordinate divine being among others,” ultimately a creature—is not contained in that morphology at all.
Your first criticism of Wright and Ricchuiti therefore begins from a mistaken characterization of “qualitative.” You say that, like Daniel Wallace, they effectively make “qualitative” mean “grammatically definite.” But that is precisely what neither Greek qualitative predication nor Layton’s Coptic category means. “Definite” concerns identification or reference; “qualitative” or, in Layton’s terminology, “descriptive,” concerns the character or quality predicated of a subject. These are analytically distinct categories. A predicate may be formally indefinite while functioning descriptively, and Layton makes this explicit rather than leaving it to Trinitarian inference. In his treatment of the Sahidic indefinite article, ⲟⲩ-, he gives among its semantic possibilities not only “one specimen of the lexical class of” but also “one specimen having the quality of the lexical class of.” In his more general semantic discussion, he likewise distinguishes denotation, in which an expression presents an entity as belonging to a lexical class, from description, in which it presents an entity as having the quality associated with that class; crucially, gendered common nouns are capable of both functions.
This is not a remote analogy drawn from abstract nouns such as “truth” or mass nouns such as “water.” Layton applies the distinction to the exact noun at issue, ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. In §292 of ‘A Coptic Grammar,’ a gendered common-noun predicate such as ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ is explicitly said to be susceptible to both denotative and descriptive interpretation: “He is a god” and “He is divine.” Layton immediately defines a descriptive predicate as one that speaks of an entity “by its quality” rather than explicitly naming it as an instance of a class, and he states that such descriptive predicates are frequently introduced by the indefinite articles ⲟⲩ- and ϩⲉⲛ-. The very grammar you invoke therefore excludes the equation on which your argument depends:
morphologically indefinite = necessarily denotatively indefinite.
That equation is not Layton’s grammar.
His elementary ‘Coptic in 20 Lessons’ makes the same point even more transparently. Under the heading “Adjectival Predicates in the Nominal Sentence,” Layton states that adjectival predicates are “normally formulated with an indefinite article,” and that this article is not represented by “a/an” in English when the predicate has adjectival meaning. He then deliberately extends the rule from adjectives to nouns and uses ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ itself: ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ may mean “he is divine,” while the same surface form may alternatively mean “he is a god.” He supplies analogous pairs such as “human / a person” and “luminous / a light.” It is therefore simply inaccurate to say that qualitativeness is being “tweaked back” into definiteness by Trinitarian theologians. Descriptive predication with morphologically indefinite ⲟⲩ- is a feature of Sahidic grammar independently described by Bentley Layton.
This also answers your appeal to Thomas Lambdin. Lambdin’s statement that Coptic definite and indefinite article usage “corresponds closely” to English is a useful pedagogical first approximation, but “corresponds closely” is not “is semantically identical in every construction.” Lambdin himself immediately qualifies the statement by discussing exceptions, including substance nouns and abstract nouns. You reply that ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is neither an abstraction nor a substance noun. That reply would be decisive only if those were the only environments in which formal Coptic indefiniteness failed to demand English “a/an.” Layton demonstrates that they are not. Gendered count nouns themselves can be descriptively predicated. Indeed, his exact example is ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. The abstract-noun issue is therefore secondary; the count-noun objection has already been answered at the level of the exact lexeme and exact predicate type.
DeleteNor does Lambdin’s pedagogical ⲛⲧⲟϥ ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ, “He is a god,” prove semantic exclusivity. It proves something that I readily concede: a denotative reading of ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is perfectly grammatical. No competent defense of the qualitative reading should deny this. What it does not prove is the much stronger proposition that every predicate ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ must be denotative. An introductory exercise may illustrate one permissible construal without supplying a universal theory of predicate semantics. Layton’s full grammar supplies that theory, and it expressly says that both construals are available.
The same problem appears in your treatment of Layton’s interlinear presentation of John 1:1 itself. You place considerable weight on the fact that his morphological gloss reads, in effect, “and past tense marker–a-god is the-Word.” Yet on the very same page Layton gives the sentence-level English translation “And the Word was God.” This is not an embarrassing inconsistency to be corrected by the reader; it is a textbook demonstration of the distinction between morpheme glossing and translation. An interlinear gloss tells the learner what grammatical morphemes are present. It is entirely appropriate to gloss ⲟⲩ- as a- because it is the Coptic singular indefinite article. A sentence translation then asks what the whole predicate construction means in context and how that meaning is idiomatically expressed in English. Layton’s later explanation of adjectival nominal predicates tells you why he can write “a-god” at the morphological level and “God” at the sentence level without contradiction. The claim that anything beyond “a god” is merely commentary mistakes an interlinear metalanguage for an English semantic theory.
There is a corresponding problem with your assertion that the descriptive interpretation can simply be restated as “a divine one,” after which little has changed. “Divine” and “a divine one” are not semantically interchangeable merely because English can nominalize an adjective. The latter expression reintroduces individuation: it encourages the hearer to conceptualize a member of a class of “divine ones.” The former is property predication. Layton’s contrast is precisely between “He is divine” and “He is a god”; he does not erase the distinction by declaring both to be the same class-membership assertion. Saying that “divine” must mean “godlike” or “one having some divine qualities” rather than possessing deity is therefore not grammar; it is already a theological decision about which properties the predicate attributes.
This point bears directly upon your accusation that the qualitative reading is merely a disguised definite reading. In a Nicene interpretation, “the Word was God” is not taken to mean “the Word was the same person as the Father.” John has already excluded that identification in the preceding clause: the Logos was πρὸς τὸν θεόν, with God. The traditional interpretation distinguishes referential identity from predication of nature. Clause 1:1b distinguishes the Logos from the person referred to there as ὁ θεός; clause 1:1c predicates θεός of the Logos. Saying that the predicate is qualitative therefore does not make it secretly definite. It allows John simultaneously to affirm personal distinction and deity.
DeleteThis also answers your appeal to Thomas Lambdin. Lambdin’s statement that Coptic definite and indefinite article usage “corresponds closely” to English is a useful pedagogical first approximation, but “corresponds closely” is not “is semantically identical in every construction.” Lambdin himself immediately qualifies the statement by discussing exceptions, including substance nouns and abstract nouns. You reply that ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is neither an abstraction nor a substance noun. That reply would be decisive only if those were the only environments in which formal Coptic indefiniteness failed to demand English “a/an.” Layton demonstrates that they are not. Gendered count nouns themselves can be descriptively predicated. Indeed, his exact example is ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. The abstract-noun issue is therefore secondary; the count-noun objection has already been answered at the level of the exact lexeme and exact predicate type.
Nor does Lambdin’s pedagogical ⲛⲧⲟϥ ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ, “He is a god,” prove semantic exclusivity. It proves something that I readily concede: a denotative reading of ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is perfectly grammatical. No competent defense of the qualitative reading should deny this. What it does not prove is the much stronger proposition that every predicate ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ must be denotative. An introductory exercise may illustrate one permissible construal without supplying a universal theory of predicate semantics. Layton’s full grammar supplies that theory, and it expressly says that both construals are available.
The same problem appears in your treatment of Layton’s interlinear presentation of John 1:1 itself. You place considerable weight on the fact that his morphological gloss reads, in effect, “and past tense marker–a-god is the-Word.” Yet on the very same page Layton gives the sentence-level English translation “And the Word was God.” This is not an embarrassing inconsistency to be corrected by the reader; it is a textbook demonstration of the distinction between morpheme glossing and translation. An interlinear gloss tells the learner what grammatical morphemes are present. It is entirely appropriate to gloss ⲟⲩ- as a- because it is the Coptic singular indefinite article. A sentence translation then asks what the whole predicate construction means in context and how that meaning is idiomatically expressed in English. Layton’s later explanation of adjectival nominal predicates tells you why he can write “a-god” at the morphological level and “God” at the sentence level without contradiction. The claim that anything beyond “a god” is merely commentary mistakes an interlinear metalanguage for an English semantic theory.
There is a corresponding problem with your assertion that the descriptive interpretation can simply be restated as “a divine one,” after which little has changed. “Divine” and “a divine one” are not semantically interchangeable merely because English can nominalize an adjective. The latter expression reintroduces individuation: it encourages the hearer to conceptualize a member of a class of “divine ones.” The former is property predication. Layton’s contrast is precisely between “He is divine” and “He is a god”; he does not erase the distinction by declaring both to be the same class-membership assertion. Saying that “divine” must mean “godlike” or “one having some divine qualities” rather than possessing deity is therefore not grammar; it is already a theological decision about which properties the predicate attributes.
DeleteThis point bears directly upon your accusation that the qualitative reading is merely a disguised definite reading. In a Nicene interpretation, “the Word was God” is not taken to mean “the Word was the same person as the Father.” John has already excluded that identification in the preceding clause: the Logos was πρὸς τὸν θεόν, with God. The traditional interpretation distinguishes referential identity from predication of nature. Clause 1:1b distinguishes the Logos from the person referred to there as ὁ θεός; clause 1:1c predicates θεός of the Logos. Saying that the predicate is qualitative therefore does not make it secretly definite. It allows John simultaneously to affirm personal distinction and deity.
The same distinction operates naturally in Sahidic. The presence of definite ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ in 1:1b identifies a referent in the discourse. The morphologically indefinite predicate ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ in 1:1c need not introduce a second member of a genus “gods”; according to Layton’s grammar it may characterize the Logos by what ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ denotes qualitatively. That is not Sabellianism, because the subject remains ⲡϣⲁϫⲉ, “the Word,” and the immediately preceding discourse has already distinguished him from ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. Nor does it amount to saying that the Coptic article means “consubstantial.” It means only that the grammatical construction permits the predication of deity without turning the predicate into another definite referring expression.
I therefore do not need the historical assumption you attribute to Wright, Ricchuiti, or Trinitarian readers—namely, that a second- or third-century Coptic translator “must” already have possessed the conceptual vocabulary of Nicaea. That is a false dilemma. A text may predicate full deity long before a council supplies the technical vocabulary by which competing interpretations of that predication are later distinguished. The question whether ὁμοούσιος is a fourth-century terminological solution is historically different from the question whether an earlier text predicates what Christians would later call divine nature of the Logos. To infer from “pre-Nicene” to “therefore the translator understood the Logos as an ontologically subordinate created god” would be just as anachronistic as the reverse procedure you criticize. The age of the translation does not settle its Christology.
Nor does the article by Wright and Ricchuiti proceed simply from theological dogma. Their published study asks how Sahidic handles Greek anarthrous nominative singular θεός across a defined corpus; the Journal of Theological Studies article is a versional and grammatical study, not merely a restatement of post-Nicene doctrine. DOI Their corpus is particularly inconvenient for the idea that Greek anarthrous θεός was mechanically rendered with Coptic ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ whenever the translator perceived an indefinite “god.” Of twenty-five anarthrous nominative singular θεός cases in their sample, twenty-one are represented with the Sahidic definite article; only four have the indefinite. Whatever one thinks of their further semantic proposal, that distribution proves at minimum that source-language anarthrousness and target-language indefiniteness are not mechanically equivalent.
The phrase in your response about “the vast number” of Coptic New Testament occurrences of indefinite ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is therefore misleading. Wright and Ricchuiti explicitly describe the relevant database as small. In the anarthrous nominative-singular θεός corpus, the indefinite cases were John 1:1, 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:6, and 2 Thessalonians 2:4; Acts 28:6 is the other New Testament occurrence they discuss involving an indefinite Coptic ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ, there corresponding to an anarthrous accusative θεόν. That is hardly a “vast” NT corpus from which one can statistically establish that bare ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ predicates normally denote subordinate divine individuals.
DeleteMoreover, two of the four nominative cases, 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Ephesians 4:6, are precisely “one God” constructions in which ⲟⲩ- participates numerically. Wright and Ricchuiti themselves identify this. his is another warning against treating the graphic presence of ⲟⲩ- as though an English translator should mechanically type the word “a” and consider the semantic work finished.
You are on firmer ground when you object to Wright and Ricchuiti’s rhetorical formulation that, apart from their qualitative analysis, the only alternatives would be a “god of the pagans” or a “usurper god.” Taken as an exhaustive taxonomy of every biblical use of θεός, that sentence is too compressed. Hebrew אֱלֹהִים and Greek θεός/θεοί can indeed occur in texts concerning heavenly beings and, in disputed contexts, human authorities. Psalm 82 and its citation in John 10:34 are the obvious examples. I would therefore not defend that particular sentence as though Scripture recognized only two lexical referents: Yahweh and pagan idols.
But this concession does not produce the conclusion you think it does. The existence of a third lexical use establishes a possible sense of a word, not the sense of a particular token. That is basic lexical semantics. If θεός can denote the God of Israel, a pagan deity, a heavenly being, or function predicatively to characterize someone as divine, context still has to tell us which function is operative in John 1:1c. One cannot proceed from “angels or human agents can sometimes be called gods” to “therefore the Logos in John 1:1 is one such delegated divine being.” That is simply another form of the lexical fallacy you accuse Trinitarians of committing.
John 10:34–36 does not supply the missing argument. There Jesus quotes Psalm 82 in a specific controversy about the legitimacy of divine terminology. Whatever one decides about the referents of θεοί in Psalm 82—human judges, heavenly members of the divine council, or some combination—the passage does not establish a Johannine ontological genus consisting of God Almighty plus subordinate beings of the same kind, into which the preexistent Logos should automatically be inserted. Indeed, Jesus’ argument culminates not in “I am merely one more of the beings whom Scripture calls gods,” but in his unique consecration and sending by the Father. The use of a term in a cited psalm therefore cannot dictate the semantic force of the predicate in John’s programmatic opening sentence.
More importantly, the immediate Prologue itself creates severe difficulty for the idea that John wishes us to understand the Logos as a created member of an intermediate divine class. John 1:3 places πάντα, all things, on the side of what came into being through the Logos and then reinforces the statement negatively: without him not one thing came into being that came into being. The most natural conceptual division is between the Logos through whom created reality comes to be and the totality of things that come to be. If the Logos is himself one member of that created totality, John’s absolute formulation becomes extraordinarily awkward. The verse does not by itself formulate Nicene metaphysics, but it is powerful contextual evidence against treating the θεός predicate of 1:1c as equivalent to “one exalted created divine being.”
The Gospel later intensifies rather than relaxes this pressure. Thomas addresses the risen Jesus as ὁ κύριός μου καὶ ὁ θεός μου, “my Lord and my God,” at John 20:28. The significance of that confession cannot be neutralized merely by observing that the Father is also called God. Nicene theology has never denied that the Father is God; it denies the inference that because the Father is a distinct divine person, predicating deity of the Son creates a second, lesser deity. John’s Gospel repeatedly combines personal distinction with language that places the Son on the divine side of the Creator-creature distinction. That is precisely why qualitative predication in 1:1c is contextually powerful: it allows the evangelist to say what the Logos is without saying that the Logos is the same person whom he is “with.”
DeleteYour argument from “Semitic usage” also needs greater precision. John’s sentence is Greek, and the Sahidic translators translated a Greek text. Semitic conceptual background certainly matters for Johannine theology, but it cannot function as an escape hatch from the syntax and discourse of the actual Greek clause. The fact that biblical monotheism can use divine terminology analogically or representatively does not mean that every anarthrous θεός in a Jewish text defaults to “a subordinate divine being.” That is no more legitimate than claiming that every unarticulated θεός must mean the one God. Both approaches substitute a theological lexicon for contextual interpretation.
The contrast with Acts 28:6 illustrates the point rather well. There the Maltese islanders, after seeing Paul survive a snakebite, suppose him to be θεός; the Sahidic employs an indefinite divine expression in a context whose participants operate within a plainly polytheistic conceptual world. An English “a god” is therefore entirely natural. Second Thessalonians 2:4 is different again: the man of lawlessness presents himself as θεός, and both “God,” “a god,” and divine self-characterization have been discussed because the rhetoric is one of usurped divine status. Wright and Ricchuiti themselves acknowledge the ambiguity of the Thessalonian case. What these passages demonstrate is exactly what a contextual approach predicts: identical or comparable morphology need not yield identical referential semantics in radically different discourses.
John 1:1 is neither the speech of pagan Maltese islanders nor the self-deification of an eschatological antagonist. It is the evangelist’s own theological exposition of the Logos, immediately followed by the assertion that all created things came into existence through him. Simply grouping these passages under “indefinite ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ” and then extrapolating a uniform ontology ignores the distinction between morphology and discourse that Layton’s grammar requires.
I would also resist your treatment of “God” in the traditional English translation as automatically grammatically definite simply because English capitalizes the word. English orthography and referential semantics are not the same thing. In “the Word was God,” God functions as a predicate complement. English can use a noun predicatively without making it a second definite subject expression. “God is spirit,” “John became king,” or “Caesar was emperor” do not work by the simplistic rule that the capitalization or absence of “a” converts the predicate into a referential identity statement. In John 1:1 the preceding clause controls the interpretation: the Word who was “with God” cannot simultaneously be numerically identical as a person with the referent whom he was with. The traditional translation has therefore never required the equation “the Word = the Father.” The grammar is predicative; the theology distinguishes person from nature.
DeleteThis is also why the claim that a Coptic definite ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ would have been required if the translator meant “the Word was God” is not compelling. A definite predicate would raise a different referential problem, precisely because ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ had just functioned as the definite discourse referent in 1:1b. Descriptive ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ provides a perfectly ordinary Sahidic means to predicate the quality associated with ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ without simply identifying the Logos with that preceding definite referent. Layton’s grammar expressly recognizes this descriptive use of a gendered common noun with the indefinite article. The choice of ⲟⲩ- therefore distinguishes the function of the predicate from the definite referential use in 1:1b; it does not tell us that the Logos belongs to an ontological species of lesser gods.
The same point exposes why your repeated phrase “the simplest and clearest understanding” begs the question. “The Word was a god” is certainly the simplest morpheme-for-morpheme classroom gloss if one begins and ends with ⲟⲩ- = a. But translation is not accomplished by arranging dictionary glosses in English order. Layton demonstrates this on the page where he glosses the morphology “a-god” and then translates the sentence “And the Word was God.” His later explanation of the exact predicate ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ demonstrates that this is not theological sleight of hand: the form itself has both denotative and descriptive possibilities.
For that reason I would formulate the linguistic evidence more cautiously than Wright and Ricchuiti sometimes do. Coptic grammar alone does not compel the conclusion that John 1:1c means full Nicene consubstantiality. ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ does not mean ὁμοούσιος. A denotative “a god” reading is grammatically possible, and any responsible discussion should say so plainly. But the converse is equally important: morphology alone does not compel a class-denotative reading either, and still less does it encode the additional Jehovah’s Witness predicates “created,” “ontologically inferior,” “a subordinate spirit creature,” or “a delegated god in contrast to Almighty God.” Those claims have to come from somewhere else.
Once the Coptic grammar is stated accurately, the question becomes contextual rather than mechanical. Layton allows both denotation and description; the translation pattern examined by Wright and Ricchuiti shows that Coptic determination does not mechanically mirror Greek anarthrousness; John’s Prologue distinguishes the Logos personally from the Father while placing the Logos on the causal side of creation; and the Gospel later directly addresses Jesus as God. Wright and Ricchuiti’s judgment that the qualitative construal best fits the Prologue is therefore an interpretive argument built upon a grammatically available category, not an attempt to redefine “indefinite” as “definite.” Their article is properly presented as a proposal, as its very title indicates. DOI A proposal may certainly be challenged, but it must be challenged on what the grammar actually says.
DeleteSo I would grant you two propositions and reject the inference you build from them. I grant that Sahidic John 1:1c contains the indefinite article ⲟⲩ-, and I grant that “the Word was a god” is a grammatically possible denotative construal. What I reject is the conclusion that these facts make “a god,” understood as a distinct subordinate divine being, either the mandatory or even the contextually preferable interpretation. The standard Sahidic grammar explicitly tells us that the exact same ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ predicate can be descriptive, “divine,” and that nominal predicates of this sort normally express inherent or unmarked identity or quality rather than merely incidental resemblance.
That is where the specifically Nicene reading becomes relevant, not as a grammatical trick imposed from the fourth century backward, but as a theological synthesis of what the text actually permits and what the Johannine context supplies. The Logos is not the Father: 1:1b already says so. The Logos is not presented as one item within the universe that came into existence: 1:3 strongly points the other way. Yet θεός / ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is predicated of him. Nicene theology later gives technical precision to precisely that conjunction: distinction of person without division of deity. Nothing in the Coptic indefinite article proves Nicaea by itself; equally, nothing in it establishes the Watchtower’s created-deity ontology. The latter conclusion arises only when “morphologically indefinite” is first converted into “necessarily one member of a class of gods” and that class-membership reading is then converted again into “a subordinate created divine being.” Neither conversion is supplied by Sahidic grammar.
They say:
ReplyDelete"These four reasons alone decrease (or possibly eliminate) the likelihood that the Copts understood (or meant to use the indefinite article to suggest) ‘the Word’ to be either a ‘god of the pagans’ or some ‘usurper god’."
If I am not missing a point, the "indefinite" character of the Johannine phrase implies a qualitative meaning. That is, the Word have superb qualities that belong to the Father.
They also say:
"[Copts] interpreted and translated John 1.1c to mean that ‘the Word’ possesses the same qualities as ‘the God of the Bible’". This is also true. Word's qualities belong primarily to the Father. So, the ontological argument concerning the co-substantiality of the Son with the Father is not related in any way with this Bible reference.
If I am missing something, I would like to underline it to me.
Thank you!
As I said on another forum, when I first saw the reference to the subject article I was hopeful that a scholarly analysis might be found in the Oxford Journal, but my impression now, after heaving read it, is that this is Countess-Harner-Hartley-Dixon in a cheap tuxedo.
ReplyDeleteLike Countess, the authors focus solely on uses of QEOS/NOUTE, rather than taking a broader approach in attempting to determine how the Coptic indefinite article is generally used in the NT when attached to bounded nouns in PNVS, SVPN, and other types of clauses. Thus, the flawed methodology begins at the very beginning.
As I read I kept scratching my head; I kept thinking that these guys were obviously apologists; that the 'logic' they employed was so oddly familiar; it was so seemingly strained; it was so, well, so bizarre. Then I got to the end where I saw that the entire argument was in relation to the NWT, and I experienced what Tom Wolfe describes as the "Aha! phenomenon" (The Painted Word), p. 6.
I quickly scrolled back up to the top and there it was, right below the authors' names. How did I miss that before? I could have spared myself so much perplexity had I only paid better attention. I could have avoided increasing the creases between my eyebrows from scrunching them together in that "Huh, how's that?" expression. I could have spared myself the 20 minutes or so that it took to read this presuppositionally nuanced piece of pop-orthodox apologetics. To quote Tom Wolfe again: "The motes, scales, conjunctival bloodshots, and Murine agonies fell away!" (The Painted Word), p. 6
Yes, there it was, as I say, right below the authors' names: Dallas Theological Seminary!
As just one example of the "logic" that guided this "analysis", to wit:
"The same category applies to John 1:1c. This qualitative/descriptive understanding makes the best sense within John's prologue. The Copts understood John to be saying that `theWord' has the same qualities as `the God of the Bible'. On the other hand, if one disagrees with our arguments above, the only other viable interpretations given the other usages would suggest that the Copts understood `the Word' to be either a `god of the pagans' (cf. Acts 28:6) or some `usurper god' (cf. 2 Thess. 2:4). Yet, this leaves one with much wider problems." (Subject article, p. 509).
So, these guys would have us believe that if the Coptic indefinite article was used at John 1:1c to identify the LOGOS as "a god" (indefinite), then "the only...viable interpretations" would be that the Coptics took the LOGOS to be either a 'god of the pagans' or a 'usurper god'.
Yes, surely Coptic grammar/syntax dictates this, agreed? (Sarcasm alert)
~Kaz
@Kaz
DeleteI think your criticism of Wright and Ricchuiti contains one legitimate caution, but the central linguistic argument you build from it does not follow. It is perfectly fair to say that a corpus consisting only of occurrences of Greek θεός and Coptic ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ cannot establish a general frequency law governing every Sahidic indefinite predicate noun. If “disfavored construction” were intended to mean that ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ was somehow intrinsically anomalous, unacceptable, or generally avoided by Coptic speakers, the twenty-five-item data set would plainly be insufficient to establish that proposition. But that concession does not vindicate your alternative analysis, because you repeatedly move from the formally indefinite status of ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ to the semantic conclusion that its normal or “literal” predicate sense must be denotative class-membership, “a god.” That is precisely the move that standard Sahidic grammar does not permit you to make without further argument.
Your first methodological objection also misstates the actual research question of the Wright–Ricchuiti article. The authors did not advertise their study as a comprehensive grammar of the Sahidic indefinite article or as an exhaustive corpus study of every Coptic count noun occurring in PNVS, SVPN, or comparable environments. The article’s published abstract expressly says that it investigates how the Sahidic version renders the Greek anarthrous nominative singular θεός, asking whether the Sahidic translators rendered that particular Greek configuration uniformly and what that translation pattern contributes to the interpretation of John 1:1c. A lexeme-controlled study is not methodologically defective merely because it does not answer a different, broader question. A survey of every predicate “man,” “prophet,” “thief,” “king,” “robber,” and similar noun would be useful for establishing general tendencies of Sahidic nominal predication, but it would introduce different lexical-semantic classes and discourse situations. It could not simply replace a controlled inquiry into how one highly marked theological lexeme, ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ, behaves when translating Greek θεός.
Indeed, Bentley Layton’s grammar gives a specific reason why lexical control matters. In his treatment of denotation and description, Layton states that a gendered common noun can perform both semantic functions and that the distinction is ordinarily not marked by a different surface form. The hearer or reader must interpret the expression according to the larger textual argument, sentence pattern, article selection, the semantic character of the noun lexeme, and other contextual factors. His examples are especially damaging to your attempt to make “count noun” virtually synonymous with “denotative class member.” A gendered common noun such as ⲟⲩⲣⲱⲙⲉ can denote “a person” or describe something as “human”; a noun of light can denote “a lamp” or describe something as “luminous”; ⲟⲩⲣⲣⲟ can denote “a king” or function descriptively as “royal.” These are not mass nouns, and they are not merely abstract nouns. Consequently, the count-noun/mass-noun dichotomy on which much of your criticism depends is not the controlling distinction in Sahidic predicate semantics.
The point becomes decisive when Layton discusses the very noun at issue. In §292 of ‘A Coptic Grammar,’ after defining a denotative predicate as one that names an entity as an instance of a class, he immediately states that a gendered common-noun predicate is ambiguous between denotation and description. His exact illustration is ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ, which he explicitly gives both as “He is a god” and “He is divine.” He then defines descriptive predication as speaking of an entity by its quality and again says that gendered common nouns can have either interpretation. This is not an argument imported from Harner’s analysis of Greek. It is a statement about Sahidic grammar, made in a reference grammar, using precisely ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ as the example.
Layton’s more elementary ‘Coptic in 20 Lessons’ is even harder to reconcile with your proposed rule. He explicitly says that nouns can function as “adjectival” predicates when formulated with ⲟⲩ- or ϩⲉⲛ-, and then illustrates the construction with ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ: ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ may mean “he is divine,” while the very same form may refer to an entity and mean “he is a god.” He immediately gives the corresponding parallels “luminous / a light” and “human / a person.” This directly answers your insistence that one must look at “bounded” or count nouns rather than abstractions and substances. Layton already does so. The semantic possibility of descriptive predication is not dependent upon treating ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ as though it were “water,” “gold,” “love,” or “truth.”
DeleteThe same phenomenon is visible in Plumley’s older grammar. In his discussion of predicate-first nominal sentences, he gives ⲟⲩⲛⲟϭ ⲡⲉ, morphologically something like “a great one, he is,” but translates it idiomatically as “He is great.” The point is not that “great” and “god” belong to the same lexical class. The point is grammatical: an overt Sahidic indefinite article in a nominal predicate does not entail that idiomatic English must reproduce an individuating “a/an.” The semantics of the complete predication have to be determined before one decides what English article, adjective, or bare predicate best represents it.
That is also why your use of Lambdin is too strong. Lambdin certainly writes that Coptic definite and indefinite article usage “corresponds closely” to English, and his pedagogical example ⲛⲧⲟϥ ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ is rendered “He is a god.” Both facts deserve to be conceded. But Lambdin immediately qualifies his general statement by discussing exceptions to the correspondence between Coptic and English article usage, including cases in which Coptic overtly employs an indefinite article where English does not. His “He is a god” example therefore establishes the grammatical availability of a denotative interpretation; it does not formulate a rule that every predicate consisting of ⲟⲩ- plus a gendered common noun must be denotative. Layton’s much more explicit semantic discussion shows why that inference cannot be extracted from Lambdin’s elementary illustration.
The error becomes especially clear in your treatment of Layton’s interlinear John 1:1. You repeatedly argue that because Layton glosses the bound group ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ as “a-god,” his sentence-level translation “And the Word was God” is inconsistent with his own grammatical exposition. But the inconsistency exists only if one collapses a morpheme gloss into an idiomatic translation. Layton himself places the two levels side by side. He analyzes the Coptic sequence as “past tense marker-a-god is the-Word” and immediately gives the sentence translation “And the Word was God.” There is nothing contradictory here. An interlinear identifies the morphological contribution of individual forms; a translation represents the semantic contribution of the construction in the target language. The very same textbook later explains that ⲟⲩ- is “not translated into English when it has adjectival meaning” and uses ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ itself as the example. To cite the interlinear “a-god” while dismissing Layton’s own sentence translation and his explicit semantic explanation is not a more literal use of Layton; it is a selective use of one analytical layer against another.
Your broader methodological proposal—“ask how count nouns with the indefinite article are typically understood”—is therefore insufficiently discriminating. Frequency is relevant, but it cannot substitute for semantic analysis. Suppose that a very large majority of ordinary indefinite predicates involving “prophet,” “thief,” “robber,” “Samaritan,” “man,” or “woman” are naturally translated with English “a/an.” That would show that denotative classification is common. It would not prove that every gendered common noun predicate has denotative force. Layton explicitly says the contrary. Nor would raw frequency tell us how a semantically unusual theological noun functions in an unusual monotheistic discourse. The fact that “John is a physician,” “Peter is a fisherman,” and “X is a thief” are naturally classificatory does not establish that every formally parallel predicate must be interpreted classificatorily. Semantic function is not determined by syntactic silhouette alone.
DeleteThis is also why your attack on Wright and Ricchuiti’s θεός-restricted data set is more complicated than you allow. You are right that their 21/25 figure cannot establish that ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ is globally “disfavored” throughout Sahidic. If that term is taken as a language-wide claim, it should be qualified. But your counterclaim that the statistic has no relevance whatever is equally mistaken. The significant fact is that Greek anarthrousness does not mechanically produce Coptic indefiniteness. According to the data you yourself quote, twenty-one of twenty-five occurrences of anarthrous nominative singular θεός were rendered with the Coptic definite article. That means that the Sahidic translators regularly supplied a definite Coptic determination where the Greek source noun lacked an article. The Coptic article system was therefore functioning semantically, not as a mechanical one-for-one reproduction of Greek article presence or absence.
That fact matters directly at John 1:1c. It does not prove that ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ there is descriptive. Wright and Ricchuiti would overstate their statistic if they treated it as doing that by itself. But it does rule out the simplistic argument that Greek anarthrous θεός was naturally or automatically carried over as Coptic ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. The translators demonstrably had other options and frequently used them. Thus the occurrence of ⲟⲩ- in John 1:1c is a meaningful choice requiring explanation. The question then becomes precisely the one Layton’s grammar prepares us to ask: does the gendered common-noun predicate denote a member of a class, or does it describe the subject by the quality associated with that lexical class?
Your characterization of the twenty-one definite renderings as merely cases in which “definite nouns” in Greek become articular in Coptic also requires qualification. The Greek nouns under discussion are not morphologically definite by virtue of an article; by definition the sample consists of anarthrous forms. Their referential or semantic definiteness is inferred from context. That is exactly the point. The Sahidic translator can make overt in Coptic what Greek leaves to syntax and context. If the translator regularly writes ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ for an anarthrous Greek θεός when the contextual referent is the biblical God, that is evidence that Coptic determination reflects an interpretation of the Greek construction. You cannot dismiss this as trivial while simultaneously treating the article choice in John 1:1c as decisive evidence of interpretation. Either Coptic article choice can illuminate how the translator construed the Greek, or it cannot. If it can, then the whole distribution is relevant; if it cannot, then ⲟⲩ- at John 1:1c cannot by itself carry the theological weight you wish to assign to it.
I would also distinguish grammatical noun class from discourse reference more carefully than you do. Greek θεός and Coptic ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ are grammatically common nouns, even when they function in a particular context as the conventional designation of the one biblical God. Saying that “God is typically a proper noun” risks confusing proper-name-like reference with lexical noun class. That confusion matters here because Layton’s rule concerns the semantic potential of gendered common nouns. ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ belongs precisely to the category for which he allows both denotation and description.
DeleteYour strongest criticism of Wright and Ricchuiti concerns their sentence that, if their qualitative interpretation is rejected, the remaining parallels would suggest either “a god of the pagans” or a “usurper god.” I would not defend that wording as an exhaustive grammatical dilemma. Sahidic grammar does not contain a rule stating that a denotative ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ must be either pagan or usurping. Acts 28:6 and 2 Thessalonians 2:4 are contextual examples of denotative divine predication, not a complete ontology of every possible denotative use. If Wright and Ricchuiti intended those two descriptions as literally exhaustive semantic categories, the sentence is too strong.
Yet your own response to it inadvertently concedes the central methodological point that undermines your case. You say that the Logos cannot contextually be a pagan deity or a usurping deity because the Prologue presents him as the one through whom all things were made and as uniquely related to the Father. Exactly so. You have therefore appealed to the discourse context to determine what an otherwise formally ambiguous predicate can mean. That is almost precisely Layton’s stated method: denotation and description in gendered common nouns are resolved in light of sentence pattern, lexical semantics, the larger textual argument, and context. Once you allow context to eliminate semantically inappropriate denotative construals, you can no longer insist that the surface indefinite article alone mandates the English “a god.”
The Prologue makes the issue especially acute. You yourself invoke John 1:3: the Logos is the mediator of “all things” that came into being. The verse does not merely say that the Father subsequently employed the first creature to make the remaining creatures; its formulation places everything that came to be on one side of the distinction and the Logos, through whom that coming-to-be occurred, on the other. Your appeal to that verse is therefore not neutral between a Nicene and a created-Logos reading. At the very least, it makes the proposition “the Logos is one ordinary member of the class of beings that came into existence” extraordinarily difficult to derive from the Prologue itself. That contextual pressure is exactly why an English “a god,” which in normal modern usage readily suggests one divine individual alongside another, may communicate more than the Sahidic morphology itself requires.
Nor does the traditional English “the Word was God” constitute a “definite” Coptic reading in the sense you repeatedly assume. This is a crucial category mistake. No competent Trinitarian analysis needs to claim that the Sahidic predicate is morphologically definite. It is not. The Coptic predicate is formally indefinite. The question is how an indefinite predicate with descriptive force should be represented in idiomatic English. English “the Word was God” need not mean “the Word was identical with the person referred to in the previous clause,” any more than the Greek predicate θεός need be an identity statement equating the Logos with ὁ θεός of John 1:1b. In the traditional reading, John 1:1b expresses personal distinction—“the Word was with God”—while John 1:1c predicates deity of the Word. This is precisely the distinction a Nicene reading requires: distinction of persons without division of divine nature.
That is why your rhetorical question—if John meant “the Word was God,” why say that the Word was “with God”?—does not create a contradiction. It depends upon treating the English predicate “God” as though it were a proper-name identity equation. The grammar need not bear that sense. “The Word was with ὁ θεός” identifies a relational counterpart; “θεός was the Word” characterizes the Logos. The difference between referential and predicative function is the whole issue. To infer from personal distinction that there must be ontological inequality is not grammar but theology—and, from a Nicene standpoint, mistaken theology.
DeleteThe same distinction explains why I do not accept your assertion that “a god” and “divine” are basically the same semantic proposition. They may overlap extensionally under some ontologies, but Layton explicitly distinguishes them because they perform different predicative functions. “He is a person” classifies; “he is human” describes. “He is a light” denotes; “he is luminous” describes. “He is a god” classifies; “he is divine” describes. Layton would have had no reason to distinguish denotation from description if the distinction were semantically empty. The fact that an entity falling under a class normally possesses the property associated with that class does not erase the distinction between class-membership predication and property predication.
This is particularly important for the Nicene question. A descriptive reading of ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ does not, by itself, prove the fourth-century formula ὁμοούσιος τῷ Πατρί. No grammatical article carries the Nicene Creed inside itself. I would reject any argument that tried to derive consubstantiality from ⲟⲩ- alone just as firmly as I reject an attempt to derive creaturehood or ontological inferiority from it. Grammar establishes the range of possible predicative functions. Theology arises from the cumulative discourse. In John 1:1, personal distinction is explicit; deity is predicated of the Logos; in the same Prologue, everything that came into existence is said to have come into existence through him. A Nicene construal is therefore not obtained by pretending that ⲟⲩ- means “consubstantial.” It is obtained by refusing to make ⲟⲩ- say “created lesser deity” when Coptic grammar says nothing of the sort.
Your attack on the authors’ institutional affiliation and apologetic interests does not materially advance the linguistic case. Wright and Ricchuiti were indeed affiliated with Dallas Theological Seminary when the JTS article appeared; Oxford Academic identifies them as such and describes the article’s explicitly theological-exegetical application to Jesus’ divinity. None of this was concealed. If a grammatical inference is invalid, it should be rejected because it is invalid; if the sample is insufficient for a particular conclusion, that conclusion should be narrowed. But identifying an author as an “anti-cult apologist,” an independent researcher, or a seminarian does not determine whether Layton’s §292 says what it says. The same standard must apply in the opposite direction: a Watchtower-friendly conclusion does not become false because its proponent has an anti-Trinitarian theological commitment. The relevant questions are grammatical, semantic, and contextual.
For that reason, I do not need to defend every sentence in the Wright–Ricchuiti article to reject your larger conclusion. I think “disfavored construction” should be understood narrowly as a distributional observation within their defined source-correspondence corpus, not as a claim that Sahidic speakers disliked ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ. I also think their “pagan god/usurper god” formulation is rhetorically sharper than the grammar warrants if taken as an exhaustive dilemma. But neither qualification gives you what you need. The standard grammatical evidence independently establishes that the formally indefinite predicate ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ can be either denotative or descriptive; that gendered count nouns as such are not restricted to denotation; that the exact phrase ⲟⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ ⲡⲉ is used by Layton to illustrate both “he is a god” and “he is divine”; and that Layton himself can morphologically gloss John 1:1c “a-god” while translating the complete sentence “And the Word was God.”
DeleteThat last fact is particularly difficult for your argument. You cannot plausibly invoke Layton as authority for the proposition that the interlinear gloss “a-god” establishes the correct English translation while simultaneously treating his own sentence-level “the Word was God” as an inconsistency generated by theological embarrassment. His grammar itself explains why the two analytical levels differ. The interlinear records morphology; the translation renders predicate meaning. Once that distinction is observed, there is no contradiction to explain away.
I therefore agree with you on one important methodological principle: theology should not be smuggled into morphology. But that principle cuts both ways. I should not say that the Coptic indefinite article itself means “consubstantial God.” You likewise cannot say that it itself means “one god among others,” much less “a created subordinate god.” The Coptic text makes a genuine morphological choice—an indefinite common-noun predicate. Standard Sahidic grammar then tells us that such a predicate, including the exact noun ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ, is semantically capable of either denotation or description. The surrounding Johannine discourse must decide which construal is preferable. Once you appeal, as you do, to the Logos’ role in the creation of all things and to his unique relation to the Father in order to exclude absurd denotative comparisons, you have already conceded that morphology alone cannot do that work.
What I therefore reject is not the grammatical possibility of “a god.” That is real and should be acknowledged. What I reject is your attempt to turn a grammatical possibility into a semantic necessity, and then to describe the competing descriptive interpretation as apologetic manipulation. The reference grammars do not permit that dismissal. On the contrary, the descriptive interpretation is built into their account of Sahidic gendered common-noun predication, and Layton illustrates it with ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ itself. A Nicene interpretation may therefore legitimately take the Coptic as predicating deity of the Logos while preserving his personal distinction from the Father. It does not require changing ⲟⲩ- into ⲡ-, denying the formal indefiniteness of the Coptic predicate, or pretending that the article by itself expresses later conciliar terminology. It requires only that Coptic grammar be allowed to make the very distinction between denotation and description that its standard grammarians explicitly make.
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ReplyDeleteΑΥШ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ [auō neounoute pe pšaʤe]
ReplyDeleteThe Sahidic Coptic translation, which dates back to the 3rd century, is particularly interesting because it includes both definite and indefinite articles. In John 1:1, the Sahidic Coptic text uses the term "ⲩⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ" (noute, "god"), which indeed contains an indefinite article. Meanwhile, in John 1:18, it uses the definite article for the Son, "ⲡⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ" (pnoute, "the God").
Jehovah's Witnesses often refer to this translation, which they claim renders the text as "and the Word was a god." The Sahidic Coptic translation, having both definite and indefinite articles, is in this respect closer to modern languages (such as English) than to Greek. The Watchtower Society asserts that the Sahidic Coptic translation supports their interpretation. Firstly, even if this were true, the Coptic translation is obviously interpretative at this point because "divine" in Greek would not be "theos ēn" but "theios ēn". Furthermore, the theological background of this translation is unclear, considering that Coptic Christians were never Arians, unlike, for example, the Visigoths or the Vandals.
Coptic translators regularly used the definite article when referring to the biblical "God," but also applied the indefinite article when the context required it. Based on the analysis of tenses and sentence structures, the Coptic text seems to use the word "god" in a qualitative sense, meaning "divine" or "having a divine nature." Thus, the use of indefinite articles in Coptic translations was complex and often determined by the context.
Coptic language experts like Bentley Layton and Ariel Shisha-Halevy point out that the Coptic indefinite article is not identical to the English indefinite article. According to Layton, the Coptic structure can also be translated in a qualitative sense, such as "the Word was divine" or "of divine nature." Shisha-Halevy holds a similar view, noting that in the Coptic language, such structures tend to refer to the nature of the subject rather than to an indefinite entity. Wallace suggests that in Sahidic Coptic, the indefinite article can be used to denote class membership or properties, similar to what is called "qualitative usage" in Greek grammar.
In Sahidic Coptic, the indefinite article is often used with abstract nouns and material nouns, which is not common in modern languages. Analyses show that Sahidic Coptic translators often used articles in places where the Greek text did not have them. This indicates that the Sahidic Coptic translation simply followed its grammatical rules and does not necessarily reflect the exact meaning of the Greek text. Examples of qualitative usage in Coptic:
John 1:33: "This is the one who will baptize with [a] Holy Spirit and [a] fire" (Horner's translation).
John 3:6: "That which is born of the flesh is flesh, and that which is born of the Spirit is [a] spirit."
In John 1:18b, the Greek "theos" without an article is translated into Coptic with a definite article: "God, the only Son" (Horner's translation). This consistency suggests that the Coptic translator likely attributed divine qualities to the Word in John 1:1, rather than treating it as an indefinite noun ("a god"). Therefore, the translator emphasized the divine quality here, not a separate (lesser) god. This contradicts the idea that John 1:1 should be translated as "a god."
In the October 2011 issue of the Journal of Theological Studies, Brian J. Wright and Tim Ricchuiti concluded that the indefinite article in the Coptic translation of John 1:1 has a qualitative meaning. They identified many such occurrences in the Coptic New Testament for qualitative nouns, including 1 John 1:5 and 1 John 4:8. Additionally, the indefinite article is used to refer to God in Numbers 4:31 and Malachi 2:10.
ReplyDeleteThis article establishes that Sahidic Coptic translators did not always consistently translate the Greek "theos" without an article. While they mostly used the definite article, in some cases, "theos" appears with an indefinite article, such as in John 1:1, 1 Corinthians 8:6, Ephesians 4:6, and 2 Thessalonians 2:4. The authors apply their findings to John 1:1c, concluding that in the translation "and the Word was God," the "theos" has a qualitative interpretation. According to this approach, the Word possesses the same attributes as the biblical God. With this approach, the authors argue that the Sahidic Coptic translators did not intend to present a pagan or usurping god, but to emphasize the divine attributes of the Word. In summary, the study suggests that in the Sahidic Coptic New Testament, the use of the indefinite article in translating the Greek "theos" without an article primarily served a qualitative, descriptive distinction aimed at highlighting the divine attributes of the Word in John 1:1c.
Moreover, scholars like Jason BeDuhn and J. Warren Wells also agree that the Sahidic Coptic translation does not unequivocally support the "a god" interpretation. Even BeDuhn, who often defends the New World Translation, pointed out that it can be interpreted qualitatively, meaning that the Word was of divine nature, not a separate, lesser god, as the Watchtower Society's theology claims about the Son.
In conclusion, the solution of the Sahidic Coptic translation does not support either the New World Translation's rendering or the Watchtower Society's Christology.
The article by Brian J. Wright and Tim Ricchuiti presents a nuanced discussion regarding the interpretation of John 1:1c in the Sahidic Coptic translation of the New Testament, focusing particularly on whether the Coptic version should be understood as supporting the rendering "the Word was a god" or something closer to the traditional Christian understanding, "the Word was God." The argument centers on the use of the indefinite article in Coptic and how it relates to the Greek anarthrous nominative singular (AnNS) θεός.
ReplyDeleteThe article explores how the indefinite article in Coptic functions and whether its presence in John 1:1c should be taken as an indication that the Coptic translators understood the verse to mean "a god" in a literal sense. The authors argue that the Coptic indefinite article can serve various roles, including qualitative or descriptive purposes, rather than simply indicating indefiniteness as in English.
The study analyzes several instances where the Coptic indefinite article is used with the word ⲛⲟⲩⲧⲉ (noute, "god") and compares these with the Greek equivalents to understand how the Coptic translators might have interpreted the underlying Greek text. They conclude that the indefinite article in Coptic does not always correlate directly with the absence of the Greek definite article and that its use in John 1:1c might indicate a qualitative aspect rather than strictly indefiniteness.
Wright and Ricchuiti also consider the broader historical and theological context, pointing out that the Sahidic Coptic translation was made in a period when Trinitarian theology was still being developed and standardized. They argue that the Coptic translators might have been trying to convey a sense of the Word’s divine qualities rather than categorizing the Word as a lesser deity.
The authors argue convincingly that the indefinite article in Coptic can often carry a qualitative meaning. This suggests that John 1:1c in Coptic might be better understood as "the Word was divine" rather than "the Word was a god." This interpretation aligns more closely with traditional Christian theology and does not support the idea that the Word is a lesser or separate god.
ReplyDeleteThe article notes that other passages in the Coptic New Testament explicitly refer to Jesus as "God" (e.g., John 1:18 and 20:28), even using the definite article. This consistency suggests that the Coptic translators did not intend to present Jesus as a lesser deity in John 1:1c. Instead, the use of the indefinite article in this verse likely served to emphasize the divine nature of the Word rather than to introduce ambiguity about the Word's divinity.
The Coptic translation should be understood within the broader theological context of early Christianity, where the divinity of Christ was affirmed by key figures like Clement of Alexandria and Origen. These early theologians interpreted John 1:1 as affirming the full divinity of the Word, consistent with the traditional reading "the Word was God."
The arguments presented by Wright and Ricchuiti offer a strong counter to the Arian interpretation of John 1:1c in the Sahidic Coptic translation. Their analysis suggests that the use of the indefinite article in Coptic should not be taken as evidence that the Coptic translators viewed the Word as a lesser deity. Instead, it is more likely that they were emphasizing the divine qualities of the Word, in line with the traditional Christian understanding of this passage. Thus, the Coptic evidence does not vindicate the Jehovah's Witnesses' rendering of John 1:1 but rather supports the view that the Word shares in the full divinity of God.